REVENUE TEST-III PAPER Test No. 1

REVENUE III PAPER-Test No. 1

ONLINE TEST

 

1. Which of the following is the relevant section of KRR Act to authorize an officer to exercise to perform the function of a collector
   1.   73
   2.   71
   3.   2
   4.   61
2. Batta to be paid to the process servers as per section ______________ KRR Act
   1.   76
   2.   23
   3.   21
   4.   14
3. Is there any provision for imposing a fine U/S 22 of KBT act 1975. If so what is the rate
   1.   ₹.5/-
   2.   ₹5/- per day
   3.   ₹.2/-
   4.   ₹ 2/- per day
4. Which of the following is the cutoff date of Kerala Building Tax Act 1975
   1.   1-4-75
   2.   1-1-75
   3.   12-4-75
   4.   none of these
5. Which of the following is the date in which the Board of Revenue Abolition Act 1996 came into force?
   1.   1-7-98
   2.   1-1-96
   3.   1-1-98
   4.   None of these
6. As per Public Accountant Act 1963 Village Office is come under
   1.   Public Authority
   2.   Village Authority
   3.   None of these
   4.   Public Accountant
7. Who is the authority to issue a notice u/s 43 of KRR Act 1968?
   1.   RDO
   2.   Dist Collector
   3.   Tahsildar
   4.   Village Officer
8. Collector may by order in writing delegate all provisions conferred on by him under Public Accountant Act 63 to a
   1.   Village Officer
   2.   Dy Thahsildar
   3.   Dy Collector
   4.   None of these
9. Surplus land is distributed to land less agriculture labour by
   1.   Tahasildar
   2.   DC
   3.   SLB
   4.   TLB
10. Period of adverse possession fixed for transfer of registry
    1.   12 Years
    2.   7 Years
    3.   3 Years
    4.   21 Years
11. Cost of publication of sale is includes
    1.   Cost of process
    2.   Arrears
    3.   Penalty
    4.   None of these
12. All Dist. Collectors are Collector under KRR Act
    1.   No
    2.   In some cases
    3.   None of these
    4.   Yes
13. As per KRR Act 1968 all Dist. Collectors are Collector but no Collectors is a Dist. Collector
    1.   Correct
    2.   Not correct
    3.   Partly correct
    4.   None of these
14. Buildings constructed on or after _________ are liable to Luxury Tax as per KBT Act 1975
    1.   1-4-78
    2.   1-1-99
    3.   1-4-99
    4.   12-4-96
15. Powers vested in and duties performed by the Board of Revenue or any Member Board of Revenue shall vested in and performed by
    1.   Govt
    2.   Dy CLR
    3.   None of these
    4.   CLR
16. Notification for the distribution of surplus land issued by
    1.   SLB
    2.   TLB
    3.   Dist Collector
    4.   Tahasildar
17. Who is the authority to issue a notice u/s 44 of KRR Act 1968
    1.   RR VO
    2.   SVO
    3.   Tahsildar
    4.   Village Office
18. The Madrass Public Property Malversation Act 1837 is repealed by
    1.   KLC Act 1957
    2.   Public Accountant Act 1963
    3.   KRR Act
    4.   None of these
19. Rate of Ex land owners pension under KLR Ac
    1.   Rs.3000 PM
    2.   Rs.2500 PM
    3.   Rs.5000 PM
    4.   Rs.1000 PM
20. Appeal against the orders passed by a Village Officer under TR rules shall be filed before
    1.   RDO
    2.   Civil Court
    3.   Collector
    4.   Tahasildar
21. Who is responsible to collect the Basic Tax, Plantation Tax, and other taxes and fines imposed as per Government Orders and Statutes are collecting for the State by the
    1.   Village Officer
    2.   Tahsildar
    3.   Revenue Divisional Officer
    4.   District Collector
22. Which of the following is the relevant Demand notice issued under section to attach a car owned by a defaulter?
    1.   7
    2.   34
    3.   36
    4.   16
23. Which of the following is not comes under the Kerala Building Tax Act 1975?
    1.   Building owned by KSRTC
    2.   Building owned by KSEB
    3.   Building owned by KWA
    4.   Building owned by P and T Dept
24. Which of the following is the cutoff date of Luxury Tax?
    1.   1-4-75
    2.   1-1-75
    3.   1-6-75
    4.   None of these
25. Basic Tax collected by the V O is remitted in to the treasury in _________ head of account
    1.   2053-00-934-99
    2.   6402-102-BT
    3.   0029-00-101-99
    4.   0029-00-800-9914
26. Basic Tax is remitted only by the land owner
    1.   Correct
    2.   Not Correct
    3.   Partly Correct
    4.   None of these
27. Who is the authority to issue a Revenue Recovery Certificate u/s 6 of KRR Act 1968?
    1.   RDO
    2.   Dist Collector
    3.   Tahsildar
    4.   Village Officer
28. Land Reforms, Review Board is constituted u/s ______ of KLR Act
    1.   40
    2.   82
    3.   72
    4.   100
29. Application for pension to the ex land owners to be submitted before the
    1.   SLB
    2.   TLB
    3.   Tahasildar
    4.   Collector
30. After transfer of registry the VO give a new TP Number to a land owner who have already a TP Number in that village
    1.   right
    2.   partly correct
    3.   none of these
    4.   wrong
31. What is the crucial date a tenant has to establish that the land is in his possession as tenanted holding?
    1.   1-1-70
    2.   1-4-64
    3.   1-7-72
    4.   31-12-69
32. A notice under KRR Act is served to the defaulters per the directions contained ________ before proceeds action to arrest
    1.   u/s 2
    2.   u/s 6
    3.   u/s 65
    4.   u/s 74
33. Present rate of Luxury Tax
    1.   Rs.4000
    2.   Rs.2000
    3.   Rs.5000
    4.   None of these
34. Who is the appellate authority under the Kerala Building Tax Act 1975?
    1.   RDO
    2.   Dist Collector
    3.   LRC
    4.   Dist Court
35. Annuity under the KLR Act is enhanced in every ________ years
    1.   three
    2.   five
    3.   two
    4.   seven
36. Which of the following officer is not authorized to issue Tax receipt?
    1.   VO
    2.   SVO
    3.   VFA
    4.   None of these
37. A defaulter arrested u/s 65 of KRR Act 1968 is released by the Sub Collector. Is it correct?
    1.   Correct
    2.   Not correct
    3.   Partly correct
    4.   None of these
38. Tenancy cases are handled by
    1.   SLB
    2.   TLB
    3.   Tahsildar LR
    4.   Land Tribunal
39. Appeal against the order of the land tribunal to be filed before ________ days from the date of order
    1.   60
    2.   90
    3.   45
40. Appeal against the order under rule 18 of TR rules to be filed before ________ days from the date of receipt of the order
    1.   60
    2.   90
    3.   45
    4.   30
41. Return of deposit or purchase money of Sale of any immovable property is not confirmed or set aside as per section _______ of KRR Act
    1.   50
    2.   55
    3.   49
    4.   None of the above
42. Demand notice u/s 34 is served to the wife of a defaulter by a VFA
    1.   Not correct
    2.   Correct
    3.   Partly correct
    4.   None of these
43. Who is the revision authority under the Kerala Building Tax Act 1975?
    1.   RDO
    2.   Dist Collector
    3.   LRC
    4.   Dist Court
44. Who fixes fair value of land?
    1.   Tahsildar
    2.   RDO
    3.   Collector
    4.   Government
45. Head of account for remitting plantation Tax
    1.   0029-00-101-99
    2.   0029-00-101-94
    3.   2053-00-934-99
    4.   None of these
46. No revision of minimum value of land shall be made if __________ years have elapsed after the publication of minimum value
    1.   One
    2.   Two
    3.   Three
    4.   Four
47. What is the rate of discount for licensed stamp vendors for stamp papers upto a value of Rs. 1000?
    1.   2%
    2.   3%
    3.   3.5%
    4.   4.5%
48. Stamp duty of gift in favour of a son for the instrument of two acres is ________
    1.   Rs. 100
    2.   Rs.500
    3.   Rs. 1000
    4.   Rs. 2000
49. Appeal against the order of the land tribunal to be filed before the
    1.   TLB
    2.   SLB
    3.   Applet Authority
    4.   High Court
50. Specify the relevant section of the Kerala Stamp Act, 1959 under which Fair Value of the land is fixed
    1.   Section 2
    2.   28 A
    3.   30 A
    4.   None of the above
51. Whether garage used for parking cars could be included in the plinth area for calculating Building Tax?
    1.   Yes
    2.   No
    3.   50%
    4.   25%
52. Which of the following is not a Collector u/s 2 of KRR Act 1968?
    1.   RR Tahsildar
    2.   Dist Collector
    3.   RR Dy Tahsildar
    4.   RR Village Officer
53. What is the present Luxury Tax under the Kerala Building Tax Act?
    1.   Rs. 2,000
    2.   Rs. 3,000
    3.   Rs. 4,000
    4.   Rs. 1,500
54. A Village Officer collected the Basic Tax due for a land for 5 years in advance and remitted in the treasury
    1.   Correct
    2.   Partly correct
    3.   None of these
    4.   Wrong
55. Realization of money from a public accountant as the same manner as arrear of public revenue
    1.   due on arrears
    2.   due on business
    3.   none of these
    4.   due on land
56. What is the penalty for failure in submitting building tax return?
    1.   Rs. 2 per day
    2.   Rs. 3 per day
    3.   Rs. 4 per day
    4.   Rs. 5 per day
57. What is the building tax for a residential building having plinth area of 90 Sq. Metres?
    1.   Rs. 750
    2.   Rs. 1,350
    3.   Rs. 2,025
    4.   No Tax
58. What is the maximum compensation payable for excess land taken over
    1.   One lakh
    2.   Two lakhs
    3.   Three lakhs
    4.   Five lakhs
59. Which of the following Plantation is not eligible to get exemption u/s 81(1) of KLR Act?
    1.   Tea
    2.   Rubber
    3.   Coffee
    4.   Coconut
60. Adjudication of stamp duty as per stamp act, 1959 dealt in
    1.   Section 31 of the stamp act
    2.   Section 14 of the stamp act
    3.   Section 25 of the stamp act
    4.   None of the above
61. Rate of collection charge to be levied for the Arrears of Basic Tax collected through RR Act
    1.   5%
    2.   7%
    3.   1%
    4.   No collection charge
62. Rate of collection charge for Rs.22,000 being KSEB arrears collected through RR Act to be levied
    1.   5%
    2.   7%
    3.   1%
    4.   No collection charge
63. Agricultural Rehabilitation Fund under the Kerala Land Reforms Rules is administered by ____.
    1.   Collector
    2.   Government
    3.   Land Board
    4.   Land Revenue Commissioner
64. Who is the authority to pass orders for forfeiting unclaimed bonds under KLR Rules?
    1.   Land Board
    2.   Collector
    3.   Government
    4.   RDO
65. Application for refund of land tax shall be in Form
    1.   Form B
    2.   Form A
    3.   Form 1
    4.   Form E
66. Which of the following is not competent to attach immovable property u/s 34 of KRR Act of 1968?
    1.   RR Tahsildar
    2.   RDO
    3.   RR Dy Tahsildar
    4.   Village Officer
67. What is the time limit for, claiming for release of attached immovable property by third parties?
    1.   7 days
    2.   14 days
    3.   21 days
    4.   30 days
68. What percent of the bid amount is to be deposited by the purchaser of auction sale under the RR Act?
    1.   10%
    2.   12%
    3.   15%
    4.   25%
69. Under the RR Act, Sale adjourned to a date beyond ____ days of the original date fixed for sale, fresh notice is necessary
    1.   15
    2.   30
    3.   45
    4.   60
70. What is the time limit for submitting application for reconveyance upon payment of arrears from the date of confirmation of sale?
    1.   One year
    2.   Six months
    3.   2 years
    4.   3 years
71. Which of the following is the rate of service charge under RR rules?
    1.   7%
    2.   5%
    3.   1%
    4.   None of these
72. Which of the following is the maximum time allowed to the defaulter as per the Govt Circular 56846/H3?12/RD dated 20-05-15?
    1.   1 Month
    2.   3 Months
    3.   6 Months
    4.   None of the above
73. Which of the following is the register under KBT Act maintained in Taluk Office?
    1.   Register in Form A
    2.   Register in Form D
    3.   Register in Form B
    4.   Register in Form C
74. Holdings which are customary by law recognised are called ____
    1.   Sree Pandaravaka
    2.   Sreepadam
    3.   Avi
    4.   Oodukur
75. RR Tahsildar authorized a Village Officer to attach a Car owned by a defaulter as per the provisions contained in KRR Act 1968
    1.   Correct
    2.   Not correct
    3.   Partly correct
    4.   None of these
76. Rate of Collection Charge for the amount up to Rs.3 lakhs collected under KRR Act 1968
    1.   7%
    2.   3%
    3.   1%
    4.   5%
77. Appeal under section 9 of Land Tax Act shall filed before
    1.   Dist Collector
    2.   RDO
    3.   Tahsildar LR
    4.   CLR
78. Ceiling limit fixed by KLR Act for a company
    1.   10 Std Acre
    2.   15 Std Acre
    3.   No limit
    4.   15 Acre
79. Transfer Registry is not take place by
    1.   None of these
    2.   Voluntary Action of the owner
    3.   Decrees of civil court
    4.   Succussion
80. The authority competent to trial offences punishable under the stamp act is
    1.   Not below the Rank of 1st class Judicial Magistrate` `
    2.   Not below the rank of Sub Divisional Magistrate
    3.   Not below the rank of District Magistrate
    4.   None of the above
81. Which of the following is the form for the notice to be issued for the attachment of immovable property?
    1.   11
    2.   16
    3.   12
    4.   42
82. Sale notice for immovable property have to be served to the defaulter before ______ days of the sale date
    1.   15
    2.   7
    3.   30
    4.   90
83. Which of the following is the rate of Plantation Tax up to the Plantation extent 1.83 htrs?
    1.   Nil
    2.   Rs.250
    3.   Rs.400
    4.   None of these
84. Who is the authority to issue a certificate in Form IX form the building exempted fro KBT?
    1.   RDO
    2.   Dist Collector
    3.   Tahsildar
    4.   Village Officer
85. Provisional notice of demand under section 6(A2) and 7(3A) of Land Tax Act shall be in
    1.   Form 2
    2.   Form B
    3.   Form A
    4.   Form 4
86. Which of the following is the relevant provision to continue the proceedings imitated against a public accountant after his death?
    1.   None of these
    2.   u/s 6
    3.   u/s 17
    4.   u/s 9
87. Any land taken as excess land is reserved for public purpose is ordered by
    1.   Collector
    2.   SLB
    3.   TLB
    4.   Govt
88. Application for TR is in form
    1.   I
    2.   III
    3.   IV
    4.   A
89. Transfer of Registry case is deal with the provisions under
    1.   Land Acquisition Act, 1894
    2.   Transfer of Property Act
    3.   Land Conservancy Act, 1957
    4.   None of the above
90. Is the Collector notified under KRR Act has any power to allow installments for RR dues upto Rs.50000?
    1.   Yes
    2.   Non govt dues only
    3.   None of these
    4.   No
91. As per the GO MS 217/12/RD dt 29-5-12 the Minister for Revenue is competent to allow installments for RR dues up to
    1.   Rs.500000
    2.   Rs.100000
    3.   Rs.200000
    4.   None of the above
92. In form No. 22, what order is issued under the RR Act?
    1.   Warrant of arrest
    2.   Order attaching a business
    3.   Appointment of agent
    4.   Demand notice
93. Under the RR Act 'Kist' means
    1.   Priority
    2.   Mortgage
    3.   Instalment
    4.   Arrear
94. Luxury Tax is charged for the building having Plinth area of more than
    1.   3005 Sq ft
    2.   278.7 mSq
    3.   278.7 Sq ft
    4.   250 msq
95. Which of the following is the Competent authority to revise the rate of Land Tax?
    1.   None of these
    2.   CLR
    3.   Rev Secretary
    4.   Govt
96. A Village Officer released the Car attached by him as per the provisions contained in KRR Act 1968, before its auction after collecting the entire deflated amount from the defaulter
    1.   None of these
    2.   Not correct
    3.   Partly correct
    4.   Correct
97. Rate of Service charge collected under KRR Act 1968
    1.   7%
    2.   3%
    3.   1%
    4.   2%
98. Receipt for transfer of Registry is in Form No. ____
    1.   IV
    2.   III A
    3.   III
    4.   VI B
99. The last Amendment of Stamp Act was during the year ____
    1.   2017
    2.   2015
    3.   2016
    4.   2018
100. Upto what period, a transfer of registry case can be kept pending?
     1.   4 months
     2.   2 months
     3.   3 months
     4.   30 days