REVENUE TEST- II PAPER -TEST No.1

REVENUE TEST - I PAPER- Test No. 1

Quiz

 

1. The maximum extent of land that can be allotted under the Kerala Restriction on transfer by and Restoration of land to scheduled tribes Act is
   1.   One acre
   2.   Two acres
   3.   Three acres
   4.   Four acres
2. What is the maximum penalty for offences under the Restriction on transfer and restoration of land to ST Act?
   1.   6 months
   2.   3 months
   3.   1 month
   4.   1 year
3. No order under the Kerala Restriction on transfer by and Restoration of land to ST Act, 1999 shall be made after the the expiration of a period of _______ years from the publication of the Act.
   1.   2
   2.   3
   3.   5
   4.   7
4. On which date, the chief of the Poonjar Edavagai granted lease of Kannan Devan Hills to Mr.JD.Munroe?
   1.   1.1.1956
   2.   11.7.1877
   3.   1.5.1950
   4.   11.7.1900
5. Kannan Devan Hills are in ______ Taluk.
   1.   Thodupuzha
   2.   Udumbinchola
   3.   Devikolam
   4.   Peerumedu
6. For which cultivation, the Kannan Devan Hills are leased out?
   1.   Tea
   2.   Rubber
   3.   Coffee
   4.   Cardamom
7. Who is the authority to assign land under beneficial enjoyment?
   1.   Tahsildar
   2.   RDO
   3.   Collector
   4.   Government
8. What is the maximum extent of land that can be assigned in a corporation area for chairtable purpose?
   1.   10 cents
   2.   5 cents
   3.   3 cents
   4.   15 cents
9. What is the family annual income for assignment of land in Muncipal areas?
   1.   Rs. 50,000
   2.   Rs. 1,00,000
   3.   Rs. 2,00,000
   4.   Rs. 3,00,000
10. What percent of land is reserved for Scheduled Tribes/Scheduled Castes in Corporation area?
    1.   10%
    2.   15%
    3.   20%
    4.   25%
11. The authority to assign land in Municipal areas is
    1.   Tahsildar
    2.   RDO
    3.   Collector
    4.   Land Revenue Commissioner
12. To whom appeal against the assignment land in Corporation areas is filed?
    1.   Tahsildar
    2.   RDO
    3.   Collector
    4.   Land Revenue commissioner
13. To what extent of land Records of rights are issued in Panchayats?
    1.   10 cents
    2.   15 cents
    3.   25 cents
    4.   1 acre
14. Travancore-Cochin Government Land Assignment Act was in the year
    1.   1964
    2.   1970
    3.   1971
    4.   1950
15. The Kerala Restriction on transfer by and Restoration of lands to Scheduled Tribes Act, 1999 deemed to have come into force from
    1.   2.2.1999
    2.   24.1.1986
    3.   1.1.1999
    4.   1.1.1986
16. The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order is in the year
    1.   1956
    2.   1947
    3.   1986
    4.   1950
17. Hypothecation of crops on payment of consideration or otherwise is called
    1.   Unduruthi
    2.   Kanam
    3.   Vilapanayam
    4.   Kole nilam
18. To whom an application for restoration of possession of land under the Restriction on Transfer by and Restoration of lands to Scheduled Tribes Act, 1999 is to be filed?
    1.   Tahsildar
    2.   RDO
    3.   Collector
    4.   Land Revenue Commissioner
19. What is the appeal period as per the Restriction on transfer and Restoration of lands to Scheduled Tribes Act?
    1.   30 days
    2.   15 days
    3.   45 days
    4.   60 days
20. Section 5 (1) of the Kerala Restriction on Transfer by and Restoration of land to Scheduled Tribes Act shall not apply to transfers effected in respect of properties, the extent of which do not exceed
    1.   One hectare
    2.   Two hectares
    3.   Three hectares
    4.   Four hectares
21. Who is the Convenor of the District Expert Committee under the Protection of River Banks and Regulation of removal of Sand Act, 2001?
    1.   Collector
    2.   RDO
    3.   Land Revenue Commissioner
    4.   Government
22. The District Expert Committee constituted under the Protection of River Banks Act shall meet at least once in _____ months in a year
    1.   2
    2.   3
    3.   4
    4.   6
23. The Malabar Land Registration Act was for the registration of proprietors of estates subject to payment of revenue direct to Government in Malabar and
    1.   Kozhikode
    2.   Kannur
    3.   Wayanad
    4.   Kasaragod
24. No sand removal operation shall be carried out in a Kadavu after ____ PM
    1.   3
    2.   4
    3.   5
    4.   6
25. Who notify the ban on sand removal from any river or river bank?
    1.   Dist. Collector
    2.   RDO
    3.   Village Officer
    4.   Tahsildar
26. Who has power to fix the price of sand for each Kadavu?
    1.   RDO
    2.   Tahsildar
    3.   Collector
    4.   Kadavu Committee
27. By whom concrete pillars are errected at the Kadavu or river banks in such a way that no vehicle shall have direct access to the bank of the river?
    1.   RDO
    2.   Village Officer
    3.   Kadavu Committee
    4.   Local Authority
28. What is the approximate extent of service Inam lands in Thiruvananthapuram District?
    1.   1000 acres
    2.   980 acres
    3.   2000 acres
    4.   3000 acres
29. Which is not a Service Inam Land?
    1.   Viruthi
    2.   Oozhiyam
    3.   Erayil
    4.   Palliyal
30. What is the purchase price of Service Inam lands per acre?
    1.   Rs. 600
    2.   Rs. 960
    3.   Rs. 840
    4.   Rs. 640
31. The purchase price allowed to be paid in instalments under the Service Inam lands Act is to be deposited within _____ months from the date of order
    1.   3
    2.   6
    3.   9
    4.   12
32. Appeal period against an order of quarrying is ____ days
    1.   15
    2.   30
    3.   45
    4.   60
33. Report of unauthorised occupation of Government land is in Form No.
    1.   A
    2.   AA
    3.   B
    4.   CC
34. What is the maximum validity period of a quarrying permit?
    1.   6 months
    2.   1 year
    3.   2 years
    4.   3 years
35. Department other than the Land Revenue Department which are in charge of Porambokes shall intimate the unauthorised occupation of Government land to the
    1.   Tahsildar
    2.   Government
    3.   RDO
    4.   Collector
36. Sree Pandaravaka lands consist of ____ acres
    1.   18000
    2.   12630
    3.   21630
    4.   18630
37. What is the annuity for the Sree Pandaravaka land?
    1.   Rs. 60,000
    2.   Rs. 72,500
    3.   Rs. 75,000
    4.   58,500
38. According to Sree Pandaravaka lands (vesting and Enfranchisement) Act, What is 'Standard Para'?
    1.   11.13 litres
    2.   13.11 litres
    3.   12.13 litres
    4.   13.12 litres
39. What is the rebate for payment of compensation under the Sree Pandaravaka Act?
    1.   10%
    2.   25%
    3.   12%
    4.   18%
40. What is the collection charge under the Sree Pandaravaka lands Act?
    1.   2%
    2.   3%
    3.   5%
    4.   12%
41. Who is the Appellate Authority as per the Sreepandaravaka lands Act?
    1.   Collector
    2.   RDO
    3.   Land Revenue Commissioner
    4.   Government
42. According to the Sree Pandaravaka Lands Act, all rights, title and interest of the temple extinguished on
    1.   1.8.1971
    2.   31.5.1971
    3.   Land Revenue Commissioner
    4.   Government
43. What is the interest for belated payment of first instalment of compensation under the Sree Pandaravaka lands Act?
    1.   3%
    2.   6%
    3.   12%
    4.   5%
44. The authority competent to issue directions under the Scheduled Tribes and other traditional Forest Dwellers Act is
    1.   State Government
    2.   Central Government
    3.   Land Revenue Commissioner
    4.   High Court
45. The Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act is in the year
    1.   1996
    2.   1997
    3.   1998
    4.   1999
46. What is the fee for the collection of minor forest produce?
    1.   Rs. 100
    2.   Rs. 50
    3.   Rs. 200
    4.   free
47. The total number of members of the Gram Sabha under the Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest Rules is not exceeding
    1.   5
    2.   10
    3.   15
    4.   20
48. At least _____ of the members present for the function of Gram Sabha shall be woman, under the Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers Rules?
    1.   One-half
    2.   One-third
    3.   Three-Fourth
    4.   One-Sixth
49. Who is the Chairman of the Sub-Divisional Level committee under the scheduled Tribes and traditional forest dwellers rules?
    1.   Collector
    2.   Sub-Divisional Officer
    3.   Land Revenue Commissioner
    4.   Tribal Secretary
50. Claim form for rights to community forest resource is in form
    1.   A
    2.   B
    3.   C
    4.   D
51. The Kerala Land Conservancy Act, 1957 came into force w.e.f
    1.   13.1.1958
    2.   15.1.1958
    3.   17.10.2009
    4.   18.11.2008
52. What is the fine for unauthorisedly destroys the property of Government in the case of a first offence?
    1.   Rs. 100
    2.   Rs. 200
    3.   Rs. 400
    4.   Rs. 500
53. Under the Kerala Land Conservancy Act, whose proceedings shall be deemed to be a judicial proceedings?
    1.   Village Officer
    2.   Tahsildar
    3.   RDO
    4.   Collector
54. The powers of the Collector have been authorised to the Secretaries of Panchayat and Municipalities. By which section of the Kerala Land Conservancy Act, the powers have been authorised?
    1.   Section 12
    2.   Section 14
    3.   Section 15
    4.   Section 16
55. Who has power to revise any order by taking suo motu action under the Land Conservancy Act?
    1.   Collector
    2.   RDO
    3.   Government
    4.   Land Revenue Commissioner
56. To whom application for quarrying is to be made?
    1.   Village Officer
    2.   Tahsildar
    3.   RDO
    4.   Collector
57. Before implementation of the River Bank Development Plan, who obtain the approval of Government?
    1.   District Collector
    2.   RDO
    3.   Kadavu Committee
    4.   River Bank Expert Committee
58. Every local Authority having a Kadavu or river bank shall contribute ____ percent of the amount collected by the sale of sand towards the River Management Fund.
    1.   25
    2.   30
    3.   50
    4.   60
59. Who maintain the River Management Fund?
    1.   RDO
    2.   District Collector
    3.   Kadavu Committee
    4.   Tahsildar
60. What is the penalty of fine for abetment of an offence under the Protection of River Banks Act?
    1.   Rs. 5,000
    2.   Rs. 10,000
    3.   Rs. 25,000
    4.   Rs. 50,000
61. Within how many days the minutes of the meeting of the District Expert Committee be sent to Government?
    1.   7
    2.   14
    3.   21
    4.   30
62. Sand audit is done once in every ____ years
    1.   2
    2.   3
    3.   4
    4.   5
63. Who audits the River Management Fund?
    1.   RDO
    2.   Collector
    3.   Finance Department
    4.   Chartered Accountant
64. Sand mining can be permitted only on the basis of the decision taken by the
    1.   Tahsildar
    2.   RDO
    3.   Collector
    4.   District Expert Committee
65. By which Act, land is assigned in Municipal Corporation areas?
    1.   Act of 1964
    2.   Act of 1960
    3.   Act of 1995
    4.   Act of 2013
66. What is the maximum extent of land that can assigned in a Panchayat area where the land is not in possession in plain area?
    1.   50 cents
    2.   1 acre
    3.   75 cents
    4.   25 cents
67. Who approve the list of lands to be assigned?
    1.   Tahsildar
    2.   RDO
    3.   Collector
    4.   Government
68. What percent of the land is reserved for ex-servicemen for assignment?
    1.   10%
    2.   5%
    3.   15%
    4.   25%
69. The extent of land that can be assigned under the beneficial enjoyment?
    1.   5 cents
    2.   10 cents
    3.   15 cents
    4.   25 cents
70. Patta forms for the assigned land is in ____ where the land is not in possession?
    1.   Appendix II
    2.   Appendix II A
    3.   Appendix III
    4.   Appendix III A
71. Lands assigned prior to 01.08.1971 , cannot be alienated for a period of ____ years.
    1.   12
    2.   7
    3.   18
    4.   25
72. What is the land value for one acre of nilam under the Land Assignment Act?
    1.   Rs. 200
    2.   Rs. 500
    3.   Rs. 1,200
    4.   Rs. 1,000
73. What is the amount to be paid to the palace for vesting of Sreepadam lands per acre?
    1.   Rs. 200
    2.   Rs. 300
    3.   Rs. 600
    4.   Rs. 1,200
74. The annuity under the Sreepadam lands to palace is
    1.   Rs. 8,100
    2.   Rs. 31,600
    3.   Rs. 38,075
    4.   Rs. 31,075
75. What is the collection charge under the Sreepadam lands Act?
    1.   5%
    2.   3%
    3.   7 `1/2` %
    4.   12%
76. Who is the Revision authority under the Sreepadam Lands Enfranchisement Act?
    1.   RDO
    2.   Land Revenue Commissioner
    3.   Government
    4.   Collector
77. The Kerala Private Forest (Vesting and Assignment) Act came into effect from
    1.   10.5.71
    2.   23.8.71
    3.   1.4.64
    4.   13.5.86
78. An appeal against the order of a Forest Tribunal is to be filed before
    1.   High Court
    2.   District Court
    3.   Land Revenue Commissioner
    4.   Government
79. What is the compensation for vesting private forests?
    1.   Rs. 8,000 per acre
    2.   9600 per acre
    3.   12 per acre
    4.   No compensation
80. The crucial date for the regularisation of occupations of Forest Lands are prior to
    1.   1.4.64
    2.   1.7.70
    3.   1.7.72
    4.   1.1.77
81. No assignment of land shall be cancelled if the annual family income does not exceed
    1.   Rs. 50,000
    2.   Rs. 1,00,000
    3.   Rs. 10,000
    4.   Rs. 30,000
82. Assignment under KLA Rules can be cancelled if assignee does not remit the amount due within _____ months
    1.   2
    2.   6
    3.   3
    4.   12
83. Upto what period the Dist. Collectors are competent to condone delay in payment of Land value under Assignment Rules?
    1.   3 years
    2.   5 years
    3.   7 years
    4.   1 year
84. Application form for assignment of land on registry is in Appendix ____ of the Land Assignment Rules
    1.   I
    2.   II
    3.   III
    4.   IV
85. Appeal against the assignment of land by the Tahsildar is before
    1.   RDO
    2.   Collector
    3.   Land Revenue Commissioner
    4.   Government
86. Which Rule of the Land Assignment confers power to government to assign land?
    1.   Rule 12
    2.   Rule 12 A
    3.   Rule 13
    4.   Rule 24
87. What is the lease rent for a coconut tree?
    1.   Rs.1
    2.   Rs. 2
    3.   Rs. 1.50
    4.   Rs. 0.75
88. The scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act 2006 came into effect from
    1.   2.1.2007
    2.   29.12.2006
    3.   12.1.2007
    4.   1.2.2007
89. Under the Scheduled Tribes and other traditional Forest Dwellers Act, generation means a period comprising of ____ years
    1.   10
    2.   15
    3.   20
    4.   25
90. Which is not a 'minor forest produce'?
    1.   Cane
    2.   Tussar
    3.   Honey
    4.   Cinnamon
91. To come under the category of other traditional forest dweller at least _____ generations resided in and depend on the forest
    1.   two
    2.   four
    3.   three
    4.   seven
92. Felling of trees not exceeding _____ trees per hectare is allowed by government for diversion of forest for forest dwellers
    1.   75
    2.   50
    3.   100
    4.   125
93. Tribals in warriam settlement surrendered ____ acres of forest land to government
    1.   500
    2.   400
    3.   600
    4.   300
94. For recognition , vesting of forest rights to the forest dwellers, they had occupied the land before
    1.   13.2.2005
    2.   26.12.2005
    3.   13.12.2006
    4.   26.12.2006
95. Punishment under the Forest dwelling Tribe Act is
    1.   Rs. 1,000
    2.   Rs. 2,000
    3.   Rs. 3,000
    4.   Rs. 5,000
96. The Kerala stay of proceedings Act, 2001 is connected with
    1.   Land Reforms Act
    2.   Land Acquisition Act
    3.   Land Conservancy Act
    4.   Land Assignment Act
97. The Stay of Eviction proceedings Act shall be in force till
    1.   18.7.2001
    2.   31.3.2008
    3.   31.3.2004
    4.   18.7.2004
98. The first stay of eviction proceedings Act was in the year
    1.   2001
    2.   1999
    3.   1998
    4.   1963
99. Nilgiri disctrict was known as
    1.   South-West Wayanad
    2.   North-East Wayanad
    3.   South-East Wayanad
    4.   North-West Wayanad
100. Who is the authority to assign land under beneficial enjoyment?
     1.   Tahsildar
     2.   RDO
     3.   Collector
     4.   Government